LEV1026 It was taught: If he sold it to the first for one hundred, and the first sold it to the second for two hundred, he makes the reckoning only with the first, as it is written: "To the man to whom he sold it." If he sold it to the first for two hundred, and the first sold it to the second for one hundred, he makes the reckoning only with the second, as it is written: "and he shall return the balance to the man"--To the man that is in it [i.e., that possesses it]. And whence is it derived that we always give the seller the advantage? Perhaps we should give it to the buyer! Do not entertain this notion, for we derive "redemption" [here] - "redemption," in respect to a Hebrew man-servant. [Just as in his redemption, the advantage is always his, and not the buyer's, so, here] (Erchin 30b)